A: It is recommended for all patients with recurrent FSGS
B: It is only useful in pediatric patients
C: It is useful to differentiate between genetic and non-genetic forms of FSGS
D: It has no role in the management of recurrent FSGS
A: Rituximab is considered the first-line therapy
B: Rituximab should be used only if plasma exchange fails
C: Rituximab is not recommended due to lack of efficacy
D: Rituximab is used in combination with corticosteroids as the initial treatment
A: Every 2 SDS decrease in height is associated with 30% increased risk of mortality.
B: Every 1 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
C: Every 2.5 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
D: Every 1 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
A: Every 2 SDS decrease in height is associated with 30% increased risk of mortality.
B: Every 1 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
C: Every 2.5 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
D: Every 1 SDS decrease in height is associated with 14% increased risk of mortality.
A: Need for bilateral lung transplant
B: Presence of Burkholderia infection
C: Cardiac ejection fraction of 50%
D: Substantial limitation of daily activities
B: Presence of Burkholderia infection
A: Need for bilateral lung transplant
B: Presence of Burkholderia infection
C: Cardiac ejection fraction of 50%
D: Substantial limitation of daily activities
B: Presence of Burkholderia infection
A: Patient is on intermittent positive pressure ventilation
B: FiO2 demand of 40% to maintain saturation
C: Arterial PCO2 of 45mm hg
D: Pulmonary Hypertension leading to cardiac index of 2l/min/m2
D: Pulmonary Hypertension leading to cardiac index of 2l/min/m2
A: Age of the donor 50 years
B: Smoking history of 15 pack years
C: Past medical history of resolved community acquired pneumonia
D: Past medical history of CABG
D: Past medical history of CABG
A: Patient is put on cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) and both of the lungs are removed together.
B: Patient is put on CPB and the lung with poorest function is removed first and first graft is implanted followed by the other.
C: Patient is put on CPB and only the diseased part of both lungs is replaced by the recipient graft.
D: Patient is put on CPB and lung with comparatively better function is removed first and implanted followed by the other.
B: Patient is put on CPB and the lung with poorest function is removed first and first graft is implanted followed by the other.
A: Motilin receptor agonist
B: Inhibition of calcineurin
C: B cell receptor (CD 20R) antagonists
D: Interleukin receptor (IL-1R) antagonists
A: Motilin receptor agonist
A: Hep A vaccine
B: Influenza vaccine
C: Hep B vaccine
D: BCG
E: INF-gamma
A: Transpilmonary pressure gradient (TPG) of more than 12mm Hg
B: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVRi) of 14 woods
C: Oxygen saturation of 88%
D: Right atrial pressure(RAP) of 10mm Hg
A: Continue methylprednisolone for 1 more week
B: Switch to ATG+ IVIg
C: Start a calcineurin inhibitor therapy
D: Consider mechanical circulatory support
D: List him for retransplantation
A: B blockers
B: Aspirin
C: Statins
D: Nitrates
A: Readiness for Transition Questionnaire- provider version (RTQ-Provider)
B: STARx Program
C: Readiness Checklist the Readiness Checklist is for providers who prefer a "quick" assessment that is self-administered by the AYA using a short form checklist, rather than a qualitative assessment.
D:Transition Action Plan the Action Plan can be used to set individual goals for each domain and to guide educational interventions and counseling to help the AYA achieve self-efficacy.
E:Parent Action Form This form parallels the Transition Action Plan and will guide the parent/guardian in helping their adolescent achieve independence and improve self-efficacy.
E:Transition Protocol: RISE to Transition -Recognition of their disease process, reason for transplant, and the healthcare system. Insight into the short- and long-term impact of their disease, therapy, non-adherence, and emotional needs. Self-reliance in scheduling and attending appointments, refilling medications, and identifying urgent/emergent changes to their health on their own. Establish healthy lifestyle choices, life-long adherence to medications and follow-up, psychosocial skills, and educational/vocational goals.
Do you think that a pre-transplant genetic screening is needed?
A: Yes, it is appropriate to guide the post-transplant management and to exclude the disease in the donor.
B: No, as this is clearly a typical HUS.
C: It is an expensive evaluation. It should be performed in case of evidence of relapse.
D: It should be performed if the diagnosis is uncertain.
E: Genetic diagnosis is unnecessary due to eculizumab availability.
A: Yes, it is appropriate to guide the post-transplant management and to exclude the disease in the donor.
Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) defines a histopathological lesion of vessel wall thickening (mainly arterioles or capillaries), intraluminal platelet thrombosis and obstruction of the vessel lumen. Consumption of platelets and erythrocytes occurs in the microvasculature of kidney, brain and other organs, which causes laboratory features of thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Depending on whether brain or renal lesions prevail, two clinical entities have been described: the thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and the hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) (Noris American Journal of Transplantation 2010; 10: 1517–1523)
Typical HUS is caused by strains of E. coli (STEC) that produce Shiga-like toxins (Stx) and cause a hemorrhagic colitis. There are atypical forms, which are unrelated to STEC and account for less than 10% of cases (aHUS). These forms can occur sporadically or within families. The clinical outcome of aHUS is unfavorable (Noris American Journal of Transplantation 2010; 10: 1517–1523)
However, diarrhea may be an initial trigger of the disease in 39% of children (Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 8: 554–562, 2013). Thus, diarrhea at onset does not exclude an atypical HUS.
Various hereditary or acquired deficiencies in the complement alternative pathway proteins have been identified, including inactivating mutations in the genes coding for regulatory proteins of the alternative pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb), factor H (CFH), factor I (CFI), membrane cofactor protein (MCP), or thrombomodulin (THBD), anti-CFH antibodies associated with homozygous CFHR1-CFHR3 deletion and gain-of-function mutations in the genes coding for two components of the C3bBb convertase, factor B (CFB) and C3 (Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 8: 554–562, 2013.)
Risk of recurrence is significantly correlated with the type of mutation. The risk is highest (approximately 80 %) in patients with CFH, C3 or CFB mutations, and approximately 50% in patients with CFI mutation, compared to approximately 20% in patients with no identified complement mutation. The risk of post-transplant recurrence in patients with MCP mutation has been shown to be low. No post-transplant recurrence has been observed to date in patients with DGKE mutation. The recurrence risk is low in anti-CFH antibody-associated HUS if the antibody titer is low (< 500–1,000 AU/ml) at the time of transplantation, while substantial if elevated. THBD mutation may be followed by post-transplant recurrence (Pediatr Nephrol (2016) 31:15–39)
In aHUS patients with high risk of recurrence, treatment with anti-C5 therapy proved to be highly effective for preventing and treating posttransplant aHUS recurrence (American Journal of Transplantation 2012; 12: 3337–3354) and Eculizumab alone, without plasma therapy (plasma infusion and/or plasma exchange), is sufficient to prevent recurrence of aHUS and to maintain long-term graft function American Journal of Transplantation 2012; 12: 1938–1944 American Journal of Transplantation 2012; 12: 3337–3354
Live-related donation in patient with aHUS and identified mutation is a possible option, provided that complete genotyping of the donor is performed excluding the mutation identified in the patient or other possibly predisposing mutation American Journal of Transplantation 2010; 10: 1517–15238
It is therefore evident that genetic mutations should be identified prior transplantation in order to stratify the risk of recurrence and guide the best treatment.
A: Doppler ultrasound of aorta and IVC
B: Doppler ultrasound of aorta, IVC and iliac vessels
C: MRA/MRV (or CTA or formal angiography)
D: Angiography only if abnormal or inadequate ultrasound
E: 3D printing
B: Doppler ultrasound of aorta, IVC and iliac vessels.
Which of the following options would be an appropriate recommendation for the family at this time?
A: You recommend an immunosuppressive regimen, which is the current standard of care in adult renal transplant recipients (standard-dose tacrolimus with mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids), because differences in the side effect profiles of immunosuppressive drugs between a pediatric and adult patient are minor and can be neglected.
B: You recommend an immunosuppressive regimen consisting of low-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with everolimus and steroid elimination at month 5, because there is recent scientific evidence that this regimen has the best long-term efficacy-safety profile in this patient population.
C: You recommend an immunosuppressive regimen consisting of standard-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with mycophenolate mofetil and steroid elimination either at an early point in time post-transplant (requiring induction therapy with an interleukin 2 receptor antagonist or anti-thymocyte globulin) or late, because this regimen has a good immunosuppressive efficacy regarding the prevention of acute rejection with an acceptable side effect profile, and steroid elimination allows post-transplant catch-up growth in the majority of prepubertal children with CKD-associated growth failure.
D: Defer listing and continue aggressive nutritional management and treatment with recombinant human growth hormone while the child grows to at least 40 kg prior to transplantation as the outcomes are much better in larger children.
E: List for deceased donor transplantation only from a pediatric donor, as this is the best way to achieve normal growth rates post-transplant irrespective of the immunosuppressive regimen.
C: You recommend an immunosuppressive regimen consisting of standard-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with mycophenolate mofetil and steroid elimination either at an early point in time post-transplant (requiring induction therapy with an interleukin 2 receptor antagonist or anti-thymocyte globulin) or late, because this regimen has a good immunosuppressive efficacy regarding the prevention of acute rejection with an acceptable side effect profile, and steroid elimination allows post-transplant catch-up growth in the majority of prepubertal children with CKD-associated growth failure.
In children, an immunosuppressive regimen allowing steroid elimination at some point in time post-transplant has the important advantage to allow normal longitudinal growth and avoid other steroid-associated side effects. Glucocorticoids (steroids) in pharmacological doses interfere with normal longitudinal growth by suppressing the secretion of endogenous growth hormone from the pituitary gland and induce resistance to the action of growth hormone in the growth plate; hence, steroid-free immunosuppressive regimens are important for pediatric patients after renal transplantation. While the 1 year data of the CRADLE study on a reduced dose tacrolimus regimen in conjunction with everolimus and steroid elimination at month 5 are promising (1), they do not provide currently sufficient scientific evidence that this regimen allows better longitudinal growth, while other previous randomized studies both from North America and Europe have documented improved growth rates with either steroid avoidance (2) or early (3, 4) or late (5) steroid elimination. There is no rationale to defer listing for renal transplantation in a 7 year old boy because renal transplantation at this age is standard of care and long-term dialysis in children is associated with multiple medical complications and psychosocial drawbacks. A renal allograft from a pediatric donor is not associated with better longitudinal body growth compared to an allograft from an adult donor.
Which are the therapeutic options in this situation, which you can offer to your patient and his parents?
A: Tremor is a well-known neurological side effect of standard-dose tacrolimus, and there is nothing that can be done against it
B: Treatment with a beta-blocker, for example metoprolol, is an established pharmacological therapy for tacrolimus-associated tremor
C: Because the tremor is likely to be tacrolimus-associated, stopping tacrolimus therapy and giving dual immunosuppressive therapy with mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids is an appropriate solution
D: Because the tremor is likely to be tacrolimus-associated, reducing the tacrolimus exposure aiming at a trough level between 2 to 4 µg/L in conjunction with everolimus could be a therapeutic option. There is recent evidence from the pediatric CRADLE study and the adult TRANSFORM study that reduced-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with everolimus is non-inferior to standard-dose tacrolimus and MPA regarding immunosuppressive efficacy and preservation of renal graft function in the first year post-transplant.
E: A tacrolimus-free, belatacept-based immunosuppressive therapy in conjunction with MMF and steroids is the treatment of choice in this situation.
D: Because the tremor is likely to be tacrolimus-associated, reducing the tacrolimus exposure aiming at a trough level between 2 to 4 µg/L in conjunction with everolimus could be a therapeutic option. There is recent evidence from the pediatric CRADLE study and the adult TRANSFORM study that reduced-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with everolimus is non-inferior to standard-dose tacrolimus and MPA regarding immunosuppressive efficacy and preservation of renal graft function in the first year post-transplant.
Tremor that interferes with school and sports activity has significance for the patient and should not be neglected. Since the tremor is likely to be tacrolimus-associated, stopping this drug would be straight-forward, but dual therapy with mycophenolate mofetil and glucocorticoids has too little immunosuppressive activity for the majority of patients (1, 2). Belatacept-based immunosuppressive therapy could be an option, but belatacept is not yet licensed for pediatric patients and is contraindicated in EBV-seronegative patients. Reduced-dose tacrolimus in conjunction with everolimus is a therapeutic option, because this regimen is non-inferior to standard-dose tacrolimus and MPA regarding immunosuppressive efficacy and preservation of renal graft function. Another option would be to switch the patient from tacrolimus to the other calcineurin inhibitor cyclosporine, which is associated with less neurotoxicity.
A: Donor and recipient are highly likely to benefit
B: Surgical risk for donor is extremely low
C: Emotional and psychological risks to donor are minimized
D: All other deceased and living donor options have been exhausted (no adult donor, deceased donor unlikely)
E: The minor freely assents to donate without coercion
C: Emotional and psychological risks to donor are minimized
Answer C was added as a 5th condition proposed by the American Academy of Pediatrics in 2008.
Families need to be educated about the psychological risks that the donor may feel, particularly if most of the family’s resources remain focused on the ill recipient. Families must also be educated about the importance of affirming the donor’s role and the discomfort that some of the procedures may cause. Data in the bone marrow transplantation literature suggest that the risks can be minimized by preparing future donors through medical role-playing, allowing them to ask questions, and including them in the decision-making process.
Of the following new physical exam findings, which one is most concerning for allograft rejection?
A: Petechiae on his right foot
B: Splitting of the first heart sound
C: Dry mucous membranes
D: Gallop rhythm
E: Soft 1/6 systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border
D: Gallop rhythm
Of all exam findings listed above, the presence of a new gallop rhythm is the most sensitive for rejection, though there typically are a constellation of findings. There may also be tachycardia, new murmurs of mitral regurgitation or tricuspid regurgitation, or evidence of congestion (hepatomegaly, jugular venous distension, abnormal chest x-ray, etc). Early after transplant, the patient may be anemic resulting in the soft flow murmur as in answer (E).
Which of the following is the most likely medication that was started?
A: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
B: Phenytoin
C: Loratadine
D: Fluconazole
E: Metoprolol
D: Fluconazole
The antifungal medications are a consistent cause of increased calcineurin inhibitor levels in transplant patients. As such, any time any of these medications are considered being started, close monitoring of tacrolimus/cyclosporine is required. Other medications that may increase tacrolimus/cyclosporine levels include amiodarone, macrolide antibiotics, calcium channel blockers, and metoclopramide. Medications that may decrease tacrolimus/cyclosporine levels include octreotide, some anti-convulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine), and some antibiotics (nafcillin, IV Bactrim). Beta blockers have little effect on tacrolimus/cyclosporine levels. Patients who have tacrolimus toxicity have irritability, tremulousness, and may have seizures if levels are high enough.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A: Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
B: Cytomegalovirus viremia
C: Bronchiolitis obliterans
D: Congestive heart failure
E: Tuberculosis
C: Bronchiolitis obliterans
Bronchiolitis obliterans is chronic inflammation of the bronchioles that results in fibrous deposition, ultimately obstructing airways. It is considered a form of chronic rejection in lung transplant recipients. Clinical presentation can be non-specific and subtle, and may resemble a upper respiratory infection at first. An increase in exertional dyspnea may be common, as well as noted decreases in daily spirometry values. While this may not seem relevant to a pediatric cardiology board review, the ABP lists knowledge of bronchiolitis obliterans as a complication of heart-lung transplant in their content specifications for the cardiology exam.
1. Rosen JB, Smith EO, Schecter MG, et al. Decline in 25% to 75% forced expiratory flow as an early predictor of chronic airway rejection in pediatric lung transplant recipients. J Heart Lung Transplant. 2012 Dec;31(12):1288-92
Which of the following medications likely is causing this degree of tremulousness in this patient?
A: Prednisone
B: Mycophenolate mofetil
C: Amlodipine
D: Tacrolimus
E: Sirolimus
D: Tacrolimus
Irritability and tremulousness are common side effects of tacrolimus, that tend to happen when serum levels are high. At high enough levels, tacrolimus toxicity can cause seizures to occur. The most common complication of azathioprine and mycophenolate is leukopenia, though many patients may have gastrointestinal side effects as well (constipation, diarrhea, nausea). The most common side effects of sirolimus are diarrhea and the development of mouth sores. The side effects of prednisone are well documented, including mood changes, increased appetite, increased blood glucose, weight gain, and a Cushingoid appearance. Long-term use is associated with the development of osteoporosis.
B: Mycophenolate mofetil
The most common complication of azathioprine and mycophenolate is leukopenia, though many patients may have gastrointestinal side effects as well (constipation, diarrhea, nausea). Irritability and tremulousness are common side effects of tacrolimus that tend to happen when serum levels are high. The side effects of prednisone are well documented, including mood changes, increased appetite, increased blood glucose, weight gain, and a Cushingoid appearance. Long-term use is associated with the development of osteoporosis.
D: Tacrolimus
Irritability and tremulousness are common side effects of tacrolimus, that tend to happen when serum levels are high. At high enough levels, tacrolimus toxicity can cause seizures to occur. The most common complication of azathioprine and mycophenolate is leukopenia, though many patients may have gastrointestinal side effects as well (constipation, diarrhea, nausea). The most common side effects of sirolimus are diarrhea and the development of mouth sores. The side effects of prednisone are well documented, including mood changes, increased appetite, increased blood glucose, weight gain, and a Cushingoid appearance. Long-term use is associated with the development of osteoporosis.
Considering the results of the serologic testing, which of the following would most likely be recommended to reduce the likelihood of the patient developing post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)?
A: Minimize immunosuppression therapy due to EBV mismatch
B: Start antiviral therapy directed at CMV immediately post-transplant
C: Identify and treat early rejection
D: Close monitoring of CMV titers in the first year following transplant
E: Early transition of the primary immunosuppressant medication from a calcineurin inhibitor to mTOR inhibitor
A: Minimize immunosuppression therapy due to EBV mismatch
Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder is a significant cause of graft loss and death after transplant. Reduction in immunosuppression early after transplant has been recommended and led to improved survival. While monitoring for CMV is important, the majority of lymphomas after heart transplant have been found to be related to EBV. Re-transplantation for survivors of PTLD continues to be controversial and institution-dependent.
The most appropriate next step in management for this patient is:
A: Administration of antiobiotics
B: Administration of pulsed steroids
C: Conversion of tacrolimus to cyclosporine
D: Plasmapheresis
E: Evaluate the patient for cardiac re-transplantation
E: Evaluate the patient for cardiac re-transplantation
The patient is presenting with severe coronary artery vasculopathy. Options for management of the patient after this diagnosis are limited, but may include using aspirin, a statin drug such as pravastatin, and/or switching the patient from a calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) to an mTOR inhibitor such as sirolimus or everolimus. Stenting can be considered in certain situations, but typically does not have long-term benefit due to a very high incidence of re-stenosis. As such, listing the patient for re-transplantation is the best option. Steroids or plasmapheresis are treatments for rejection, and in absence of pathological findings or other evidence of acute rejection are not indicated. This being said, many patients will often receive presumptive treatment for rejection in this setting, in the hope of clinical improvement, though it should not be done in lieu of listing for re-transplantation.
A: More CMV and BKPyV infections
B: A higher number of acute rejections
C: More Proteinuria
D: A higher rate of de novo Donor specific antibodies
E: None of the above
E: None of the above
Studies in pediatric transplantation have shown, that mTOR inhibitors are protective for viral diseases. In combination with a low-dose CNI, there are no differences in acute rejections, proteinuria or the development of DSAs.
Which of the following is associated with the lowest risk for relapse?
A: Patient with undetectable soluble urokinase receptor (suPAR) serum level
B: Identified podocin mutation
C: Patient receiving peri- transplant plasmapheresis to prevent recurrence
D: Patient receiving living donor kidney
E: Patient who had showed an initial steroid response
B: Identified podocin mutation
suPAR was not confirmed as a reliable marker to predict FSGS relapse, the incidence and time to recurrence of FSGS in the kidney allograft are not significantly different between patients who did and did not undergo prophylactic plasmapheresis. Although, living donor kidneys may be used to transplant children with FSGS they are not associated to a reduced risk of relapse and children who had had an initial steroid response are at higher risk for relapse.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for kidney transplantation?
A: Malnutrition
B: HIV
C: Active Infection
D: Oxalosis
E: All of the above
C: Active Infection
While we would like all of our patients to be at the optimal nutritional status at the time of transplantation, this is not always the case. It is definitely not a contraindication. HIV was an absolute contraindicated until the recent antivirals were developed. There are centers that will transplant HIV + patients with good outcomes. Oxalosis was an absolute contraindication until recent years because of the risk of reoccurrence. Now it can be treated with combined liver kidney transplantation. Active infections should be treated before transplantation and immunosuppression to prevent increased morbidity and mortality from infection.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding these two CNIs?
A: Tacrolimus is more potent than cyclosporine on a molecular weight basis
B: Cyclosporine is a macrolide antibiotic
C: Tacrolimus increases expression of TGF-beta
D: Both have better absorption if taken with a fatty meal.
A: Tacrolimus is more potent than cyclosporine on a molecular weight basis
Tacrolimus is more potent than cyclosporine on a molecular weight basis hence 1-10mg tables of tacrolimus and 100s for cyclosporine. Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic, not cyclosporine. Cyclosporine increases expression of TGF-beta and not tacrolimus. Both Cyclosporine and tacrolimus have some decreased absorption when ingested with a fatty meal, and it is recommended that they be taken on an empty stomach, if possible.
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